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    Law and Commandments

    Posted by NewStart on June 15, 2009 at 10:56am
    in Questions & Answers

    I was asked in another group discussion how a felt about the 10 Commandments. As I thought about it some questions came to mind.

    I hear people preaching that we are not bound by the Law anymore because of Christ's death. But most people do believe in the 10 commandments. Well, aren't they God's Law? Shouldn't we follow them?

    Are all those detailed, specific laws that God gave the Israelites to live by different from the 10 Commandments? He told them how to plant, what to wear, how to give, what to give, etc. Are we to hold to all of those regulations?

    If I eat pork am I going to hell? Or does Christ's death free me from that Law?

    Are we to stone the man that sleeps with another man's wife as God told the Israelites? If we don't are we going to hell?

    It seems that people pick and choose what they want to consider to be God's law. A person may say that we don't have to tithe anymore but will agree that incest is wrong. Well didn't God give both laws? How do we say that one is obsolete but the other isn't.

    Why is it that I shouldn't lie as according to the 10 Commandments but if I don't treat the Sabbath as holy or if wear a crucifix around my neck it's no big deal.

    Some people won't celebrate Halloween but they'll celebrate Christmas (even after they hear the truth about it).

    I guess I'm trying to understand what is meant by the phrase "we aren't under the Law". What Laws should we live by?


    Shalom NewStart

    I am reproducing the link from the main page which takes you to an article that I hope answers these questions.

    As a quick summary: the death of Christ frees us from the PENALTY of the law, not the Law itself - thus rather than (for example) abolishing the commandment not to commit adultery (it would be lunacy to abolish it if you think about it) He removes the death penalty through His atonement on the cross if we repent genuinely. The story of the woman caught in adultery illustrates the place of the Law in the new Covenant - there is forgiveness so long as we do not cheapen grace by doing it again and again (my impression with the adultery was that she was given one more chance). Some parts of the Law have been fulfilled and are no longer binding - the animal and other sacrifices and the Levitical priesthood system that administered it. We're now under a New Covenant and a new (Melchizedek) Priesthood. But not eating pork (fore example) is still in force - it's bad for our health because according to Yahweh it isn't food (even if people may call it food).

    Now to the more important question as to what being "under the Law" meant - I refer you to this article and specifically to this section:

    Works of the Law and Under the Law
    Much of the confusion about Paul's teachings on the Torah involves two scripture
    phrases which appear in the New Testament only in Paul's writings (in Rom. Gal. &
    1Cor.). These two phrases are "works of the Law" and "under the Law", each of which
    appears 10 times in the Scriptures.

    The first of these phrases, "works of the Law", is best understood through its usage in
    Gal. 2:16. Here Paul writes:
    knowing that a man is not justified by
    WORKS OF THE LAW but by faith in
    Yeshua the Messiah, even we have believed
    in Messiah Yeshua, that we might be justified
    by faith in Messiah and not by the
    WORKS OF THE LAW; for by the WORKS OF
    THE LAW no flesh shall be justified.
    Paul uses this phrase to describe a false method of justification which is diametrically
    opposed to "faith in the Messiah". To Paul "works of the Law" is not an obsolete Old
    Testament system, but a heresy that has never been true.
    The term "works of the Law" has shown up as a technical theological term used in a
    document in the Dead Sea Scrolls called MMT which says:
    Now we have written to you some of the
    WORKS OF THE LAW, those which we
    determined would be beneficial for you...
    And it will be reckoned to you as righteousness,
    in that you have done what is right and good
    before Him...
    (4QMMT (4Q394-399) Section C lines 26b-31)
    The second of these phrases is "under the Law". This phrase may best be understood
    from its usage in Rom. 6:14, "For sin shall not have dominion over you, for you are not
    UNDER THE LAW but under grace." Paul, therefore, sees "under grace" and "under the
    Law" as diametrically opposed, one cannot be both. The truth is that since we have
    always been under grace (see Gen. 6:8; Ex. 33:12, 17; Judges 6:17f; Jer. 31:2) we have
    never been "under the Torah". This is because the Torah was created for man, man was
    not created for the Torah (see Mk. 2:27). "Under the Torah" then, is not an obsolete Old
    Testament system, but a false teaching which was never true.
    There can be no doubt that Paul sees "works of the Law" and "under the Law" as
    categorically bad, yet Paul calls the Torah itself "holy, just and good" (Rom. 7:12),
    certainly Paul does not use these phrases to refer to the Torah itself.
    In order to preserve the intent that these two phrases were technical theological
    terms I have rendered the Aramaic phrase for “works of the Law” with the Hebrew
    phrase “Ma’aseh HaTorah” (“Works of the Law”) which is the exact Hebrew phrase
    found in the Dead Sea Scrolls (MMT). In the same way the technical term for “under the
    Law” has been transliterated from the Aramaic as “T’cheit Namosa”.
    lix

    Torah and Nomos
    The Hebrew word which the KJV renders “Law” is “Torah” which actually means
    “guidance; instruction). The Greek word used in the Greek NT is NOMOS. While this is
    generally taken as a Greek word it is also an Aramaic word. There are two Aramaic
    words for Torah. The actual Aramaic cognate of Torah is )tyrw) “Orita”. Orita is the
    word which appears for Torah in the Targums and Talmuds. The Peshitta Aramaic
    Tanak however uses the Aramaic word )swmn NAMOSA for Torah. NAMOSA is based
    on a three letter Semitic root smn meaning “to civilize”. The same root is used in
    Modern Hebrew to mean to be polite. The Aramaic NT also uses the word )swmn for
    “Torah” (except in Mt. 11:13; 12:5; 22:40 where )tyrw) is used. I have always
    translated )tyrw) as Torah. Wherever )swmn seems to refer to the Torah I have
    translated “Torah” as well.

    I hope this helps.

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