(1) Must we possess a perfectly
flawless bible translation in order to call it
"the word of
God"? If
so, how do we know
"it" is
perfect? If not,
why do some "limit" "the word of
God" to only ONE "17th Century
English"
translation?
Where was "the word of
God" prior to
1611? Did
our Pilgrim Fathers have
"the word of God" when they brought
the GENEVA
BIBLE translation with them
to North America?
(2) Were the
KJV translators
"LIARS" for saying that
"the very meanest
[poorest]
translation" is
still "the word
of
God"?
(3) Do you believe that the
Hebrew and
Greek used for the KJV are
"the word of
God"?
(4) Do you believe that the
Hebrew and Greek underlying
the KJV can "correct" the
English?
(5) Do you believe that the English
of the KJV "corrects" its own
Hebrew
and Greek texts
from which it was
translated?
(6) Is ANY
translation
"inspired"?
Is the KJV an "inspired
translation"?
(7) Is the KJV
"scripture"? Is IT
"given by inspiration
of
God"?
[2 Tim.
3:16]
(8)
WHEN was the KJV
"given by inspiration of God"
1611... or any of the KJV
major/minor revisions in 1613, 1629, 1638,
1644, 1664, 1701, 1744, 1762, 1769, and the last one in
1850?
(9) In what language did Jesus
Christ [not Peter Ruckman and
others] teach that the Old Testament would be preserved forever
according to Matthew
5:18?
(10) Where does the Bible teach
that God will perfectly preserve His Word in the form of
one
seventeenth-century English
translation?
(11) Did God lose the words of the
originals when the
"autographs" were
destroyed?
(12) Did the
KJV translators mislead their readers
by saying that their New Testament was "translated out of
the original
Greek"?
[title page of KJV N.T.] Were they
"liars" for claiming to have
"the original Greek" to translate
from?
(13) Was
"the original Greek"
lost after
1611?
(14) Did the great
Protestant Reformation
(1517-1603) take place without "the
word of
God"?
(15) What copy or translations of
"the word of God," used by the
Reformers, was absolutely infallible and
inerrant? [their
main Bibles are well-known and copies still exist].
(16)
IF... the KJV is
"God's infallible and preserved word to the
English-speaking people," did the
"English-speaking people" have "the
word of God" from
1525-1604?
(17) Was
Tyndale's [1525], or
Coverdale's
[1535], or
Matthew's
[1537], or the
Great [1539], or the
Geneva [1560]... English
Bibles absolutely
infallible?
(18) If neither the KJV nor
any other one version were absolutely inerrant, could a lost sinner still
be "born again" by the
"incorruptible word of
God"?
[1 Peter 1:23]
(19) If the KJV can
"correct" the inspired originals,
did the Hebrew and Greek
originally "breathed out by God"
need correction or
improvement?
(20) Since most
"KJV-Onlyites"
believe the KJV is the inerrant and inspired "scripture"
[2 Peter 1:20], and
2 Peter 1:21 says that
"the prophecy came not in old time by the will
of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy
Ghost," would you not therefore reason thus
"For
the King James Version came not in 1611 by the will of man: but holy men
of God translated as they were moved by the Holy
Ghost"?
(21) Which reading is the verbally
(word-for-word) inerrant scripture
"whom ye"
[Cambridge KJV's] or, "whom
he" [Oxford KJV's] at
Jeremiah
34:16?
(22) Which reading is the verbally
(word-for-word) inerrant scripture
"sin" [Cambridge
KJV's] or "sins"
[Oxford KJV's] at 2 Chronicles
33:19?
(23) Who publishes the infallible
"INERRANT
KJV"?
(24) Since the
revisions of the KJV from 1613-1850
made (in addition to changes in punctuation,
capitalization, and spelling) many hundreds of
changes in words, word order,
possessives, singulars for plurals, articles, pronouns, conjunctions,
prepositions, entire phrases, and the addition and deletion of words
would you say the
KJV was "verbally inerrant" in 1611... or
1629, 1638, 1644, 1664, 1701, 1744, 1762, 1769, or
1850?
(25) Would you contend that God
waited until a king named "JAMES" sat
on the throne of England before perfectly preserving His Word in English,
and would you think well of an "Epistle
Dedicatory" that praises this king as
"most dread Sovereign...Your Majesty's Royal
Person..."
IF
the historical FACT was revealed to you that
King James was a practicing homosexual all
of his
life?
[documentation
Antonia
Fraser
"King James VI of Scotland, I of
England" Knopf
Publ./1975/pgs.
36-37, 123
|| Caroline Bingham
"The Making of a King" Doubleday
Publ./1969/pgs.
128-129, 197-198
|| Otto J. Scott
"James I" Mason-Charter
Publ./1976/pgs.
108, 111, 120, 194, 200, 224, 311, 353, 382
||
David H. Wilson
"King James VI & I" Oxford
Publ./1956/pgs.
36, 99-101, 336-337, 383-386, 395
||
plus several
encyclopedias]
(26) Would you contend
that the KJV translator, Richard
Thomson, who worked on Genesis-Kings in the
Westminster group, was "led by God in
translating" even though he was an
alcoholic that
"drank his fill daily" throughout
the work?
[Gustavus S. Paine
"The
Men Behind the KJV" Baker Book
House/1979/pgs. 40, 69]
(27) Is it possible that the rendition
"gay
clothing," in the KJV at James
2:3, could give the wrong impression to the
modern-English KJV
reader?
(28) Did dead people
"wake up" in the morning according
to Isaiah 37:36 in the
KJV?
(29) Was
"Baptist" John's last name according
to Matthew 14:8 and Luke
7:20 in the
KJV?
(30) Is 2
Corinthians 6:11-13 in the KJV understood or
make any sense to the modern-English KJV
reader?
"O ye Corinthians, our mouth is open unto
you, our heart is enlarged. Ye are not straitened in us, but ye are straitened
in your own bowels. Now for a recompense in the same, (I speak as unto my
children,) be ye also enlarged." As clearly understood
from the New International Version
[NIV]
"We
have spoken freely to you, Corinthians, and opened wide our hearts to you.
We are not withholding our affection from you, but you are withholding yours
from us. As a fair exchange
I speak as to my children
open wide
your hearts
also."
(31) Does the singular
"oath's,"
occurring in every KJV at Matthew 14:9 and
Mark 6:26,
"correct"
every Textus Receptus
Greek which has the plural
("oaths") by the
post-1611 publishers, misplacing the
apostrophe?
(32) Did Jesus teach a way for men
to be "worshiped" according to
Luke 14:10 in the KJV, contradicting the first
commandment and what He said in Luke
4:8?
[Remember you may not go the
Greek for any
"light" if you are a
KJV-Onlyite!]
(33) Is the Holy Spirit an
"it" according to
John 1:32; Romans 8:16,
26; and 1 Peter 1:11 in the
KJV? [Again
you may not go the Greek for
any "light" if you are a
KJV-Onlyite!]
(34) Does Luke
23:56 support a "Friday" crucifixion in the
KJV? [No
"day" here in
Greek]
(35) Did Jesus command for a girl
to be given "meat" to eat according
to Luke 8:55 in the
KJV?
[or,
"of them that sit at meat with
thee." at
Luke
14:10]
(36) Was
Charles Haddon Spurgeon a
"Bible-corrector" for saying that
Romans 8:24 should be rendered
"saved in
hope," instead of the KJV's
"saved
by
hope"?
[Metropolitan Tabernacle
Pulpit Vol 27,
1881, page 485
see more Spurgeon KJV comments
in What is "KJV-Onlyism?", his & many
others' views in the article, "Quotes
on Bible Translations."]
(37) Was J.
Frank Norris a
"Bible-corrector" for saying that
the correct rendering of John 3:5 should be
"born of water and the Spirit," and
for saying that "repent and turn"
in Acts 26:20 should be
"repent, even
turn"?
[Norris-Wallace Debate, 1934, pgs. 108, 116]
Also, is Norman Pickering
an "Alexandrian Apostate" for stating,
"The nature of language
does not permit a
'perfect' translation
the semantic
area of words differs between languages so that there is seldom complete
overlap. A
'perfect' translation of
John 3:16 from
Greek
into English
is impossible,
for we have no perfect equivalent for
"agapao"
[translated
"loved" in
John
3:16]."?
(38) Was R.
A. Torrey
"lying" when he said the
following in 1907 "No one, so
far as I know, holds that the English translation of the Bible is absolutely
infallible and inerrant. The doctrine held by many is that the Scriptures
as originally given were absolutely infallible and inerrant, and that our
English translation is a substantially accurate rendering of the Scriptures
as originally
given"?
[Difficulties in the
Bible, page 17]
(39) Is Don
Edwards correct in agreeing "in favor
of canonizing our KJV," thus replacing
the inspired canon in
Hebrew and
Greek?
[The Flaming
Torch, June 1989, page 6]
(40) Did God supernaturally
"move His Word from the original languages to
English" in 1611 as affirmed by
The Flaming
Torch?
[same page above]